Section 10.3 Images and preimages of sets
When we defined the function
\(f:A \to B\text{,}\) we said that if
\(f(a)=b\) then we called
\(b\) the image of
\(a\) under
\(f\text{.}\) This idea can be extended quite naturally to think of the image of a set of points. Also, given an element
\(b \in B\text{,}\) we can ask for all the elements of
\(A\) that map to it. This latter idea is not quite the inverse function, but it is getting close to it.
We should define these sets more precisely:
Definition 10.3.1. Image and preimage.
Let \(f: A \to B\) be a function, and let \(C \subseteq A\) and let \(D \subseteq B\text{.}\)
The notation for preimage, \(f^{-1}\text{,}\) is somewhat unfortunate in that we use the same notation to mean the inverse-function. Additionally, it is regularly confused with
\begin{equation*}
\left(f(x)\right)^{-1} = \dfrac{1}{f(x)}
\end{equation*}
i.e. the reciprocal. Alas, we are stuck with this notation and must be careful to understand its meaning by context.
This is an important point, so we’ll make it a formal warning:
After all those warnings and caveats, lets draw a schematic of images and preimages:
Notice in this figure that
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we have drawn \(f(A)\) as a subset of \(B\) — in fact \(f(A)\) is exactly the range of \(f\) and so must be a subset of \(B\text{.}\)
-
we have drawn the preimage of \(D\) so that it looks like two copies of half of the set \(D\) — this is to emphasise the fact that not every element of \(B\) has to have a preimage in \(A\text{.}\) Further, a given point in \(B\) might have more than one preimage.
Our quick look at preimages of \(f(x)=x^2\) above illustrated this second point. That was a little brief, but the following example looks at this in more detail.
Example 10.3.4. Images and preimages.
Let \(f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}\) be defined by \(f(x) = x^2\text{.}\) Find the following
-
\(\displaystyle f([0,4])\)
-
\(\displaystyle f( [-3,-1] \cup [1,2] )\)
-
\(\displaystyle f^{-1}(\set{0})\)
-
\(\displaystyle f^{-1}(\set{1})\)
-
\(\displaystyle f^{-1}( [0,4] ) = [-2,2]\)
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\(\displaystyle f^{-1}( [1,4] ) = [-2,-1] \cup [1,2]\)
-
\(\displaystyle f^{-1}(\set{-1})\)
-
\(\displaystyle f^{-1}([-4,-1])\)
Solution.
It will help to make a quick sketch of
\(y=f(x)=x^2\) and think about the various intervals in the domain and codomain. That
\(f(x)\) is decreasing for
\(x\lt 0\) and increasing for
\(x \gt 0\) does make this exercise a little easier.

-
The interval \(0 \leq x \leq 4\) maps to \(0 \leq x^2 \leq 16\text{.}\) So \(f([0,4])=[0,16]\)
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The interval \(-3 \leq x \leq -1\) maps to \(1 \leq x^2 \leq 9\text{,}\) and the interval \(1 \leq x \leq 2\) maps to \(1 \leq x^2 \leq 4\text{.}\) Hence the points in the union \([-3,-1] \cup [1,2]\) map to the interval \([1,9] \cup [1,4] = [1,9]\text{.}\) Hence \(f( [-3,-1] \cup [1,2] ) = [1,9]\text{.}\)
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To find the preimage of \(\set{0}\text{,}\) we need to solve \(f(x)=x^2=0\text{.}\) This only has a single solution, namely \(x=0\text{,}\) and so \(f^{-1}(\set{0})= \set{0}\)
-
To find the preimage of \(\set{1}\text{,}\) we need to solve \(f(x)=x^2=1\text{.}\) This only two solutions, namely \(x= \pm 1\text{,}\) and so \(f^{-1}(\set{1})= \set{-1,1}\)
-
The interval
\(0 \leq x^2 \leq 4\) is mapped to by any number in the interval
\(-2 \leq x \leq 2\text{.}\) So
\(f^{-1}([0,4])=[-2,2]\text{.}\)
We can check this by looking at the above plot, but also by considering
\(f([-2,0] \cup [0,2])\text{.}\) The interval
\(0 \leq x \leq 2\) maps to
\(0 \leq x^2 \leq 4\) and
\(-2 \leq x \leq 0\) maps to the same,
\(0 \leq x^2 \leq 4\text{.}\)
-
The interval
\(1 \leq x^2 \leq 4\) is mapped to by any number in the interval
\(1 \leq x \leq 2\) or any number in
\(-2 \leq x \leq -1\text{.}\) So
\(f^{-1}([1,4])=[-2,-1]\cup[1,2]\text{.}\)
Again, we can check this by looking at the above plot, but also by considering
\(f([-2,-1] \cup [1,2])\text{.}\) The interval
\(1\leq x \leq 2\) mapes to
\(1 \leq x^2 \leq 4\text{,}\) and
\(-2 \leq x \leq -1\) maps to the same.
-
To find the preimage of \(\set{-1}\text{,}\) we need to solve \(f(x)=x^2=-1\text{.}\) This has no solutions, so \(f^{-1}(\set{-1})=\es \)
-
To find the preimage of \(-4 \leq x^2 \leq -1\text{,}\) we should recall that the square of any real number is non-negative. So there are no values of \(x\) that map into that interval. Thus \(f^{-1}([-4,-1])=\es\text{.}\)
This example shows that the preimage of a single element in the codomain can be empty, or can contain a single element, or can contain multiple elements. As noted above, we want to understand what conditions we can impose on a function so that the preimage of a single point in the codomain always contains exactly one point in the domain. This will allow us to properly define inverse functions — that is if
\(f(x)=y\) then how do we define a new function
\(g\) so that
\(g(y)=x\text{.}\)
Before we get to inverses we can do some more exploring of images and preimages. Since these are really operations on sets, we can (and should) ask ourselves how do these new things we can do to sets interact with the other things we can do to sets. So we now explore some of the relationships between subsets and their images and preimages, and also the interplay between functions, unions, intersections and differences.
For example — it is clearly the case that if
\(C_1 \subseteq C_2 \subseteq A\) then
\(f(C_1) \subseteq f(C_2)\text{.}\) Similarly if
\(D_1 \subseteq D_2 \subseteq B\) then
\(f^{-1}(D_1) \subseteq f^{-1}(D_2)\text{.}\) While we’ve said “clearly”, we should really state results carefully and make them a result and prove them. We’ll follow this up with a more important result which we’ll call a theorem.
Result 10.3.5.
Let \(f: A \to B\text{,}\) and let \(C_1 \subseteq C_2 \subseteq A\) and \(D_1 \subseteq D_2 \subseteq B\text{.}\) Then
\begin{equation*}
f(C_1) \subseteq f(C_2) \qquad \text{and} \qquad f^{-1}(D_1) \subseteq f^{-1}(D_2).
\end{equation*}
Proof.
We prove each inclusion in turn.
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Let
\(b \in f(C_1)\text{.}\) Then (by the definition of image) there is some
\(a \in C_1\) so that
\(f(a)=b\text{.}\) But since
\(C_1 \subseteq C_2\text{,}\) we know that
\(a \in C_2\text{.}\) Hence
\(b=f(a) \in f(C_2)\) as required.
-
Let
\(a \in f^{-1}(D_1)\text{.}\) Then (by definition of preimage)
\(f(a) \in D_1\text{.}\) But since
\(D_1 \subseteq D_2\text{,}\) we know
\(f(a) \in D_2\text{.}\) Then, by the definition of preimage, we know that
\(a \in f^{-1}(D_2)\text{.}\)
Now, while the above proof is not terribly technical, it does require us to know the definitions of image and preimage and to understand how to manipulate them. Even though the statement we have just proved is (arguably) obvious, its proof is not so trivial.
Theorem 10.3.6.
Let \(f: A \to B\text{,}\) and let \(C \subseteq A\) and \(D \subseteq B\text{.}\) Further, let \(C_1, C_2\) be subsets of \(A\) and let \(D_1, D_2\) be subsets of \(B\text{.}\) The following are true
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\(\displaystyle C \subseteq f^{-1}( f(C) )\)
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\(\displaystyle f( f^{-1}(D) ) \subseteq D\)
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\(f(C_1 \cap C_2) \subseteq f(C_1) \cap f(C_2)\) — note: need not be equal
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\(f(C_1 \cup C_2) = f(C_1) \cup f(C_2)\) — note: are equal
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\(\displaystyle f^{-1}(D_1 \cap D_2) = f^{-1}(D_1) \cap f^{-1}(D_2)\)
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\(\displaystyle f^{-1}(D_1 \cup D_2) = f^{-1}(D_1) \cup f^{-1}(D_2)\)
So what does this theorem tell us? It says that preimages play very nicely with set operations — they are well-behaved:
It also tells us that images are mostly well-behaved:
Of course, we should prove these results. We’ll do some in the text and leave some of them as exercises. We’ll prove (iii) first and then (vi) and leave (i) until last. In the authors’ experience, people find (i) quite confusing, so we will tackle it after we’ve warmed up on the other two.
Proof.
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We need to show that if an element is in the set on the left then it is in the set on the right. Let
\(b \in f(C_1 \cap C_2\)). Hence there is
\(a \in C_1 \cap C_2\) such that
\(f(a) = b\text{.}\) This means that
\(a \in C_1\) and
\(a \in C_2\text{.}\) It follows that
\(f(a) = b \in f(C_1)\) and
\(f(a) = b \in f(C_2)\text{,}\) and hence
\(b \in f(C_1) \cap f(C_2)\text{.}\)
The converse is false:
\(f(C_1) \cap f(C_2) \not\subseteq f(C_1 \cap C_2)\) — another good exercise for the reader.
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Let
\(a \in f^{-1}(D_1 \cup D_2)\) and so
\(f(a)
\in D_1 \cup D_2\text{.}\) This means that
\(f(a) \in D_1\) or
\(f(a) \in D_2\text{.}\) If
\(f(a)
\in D_1\) it follows that
\(a \in f^{-1}(D_1)\text{.}\) Similarly if
\(f(a) \in D_2\) then
\(a \in f^{-1}(D_2)\text{.}\) Since
\(a\) lies in one of these two sets, it follows that
\(a \in f^{-1}(D_1) \cup f^{-1}(D_2)\text{.}\)
Let
\(a \in f^{-1}(D_1) \cup f^{-1}(D_2)\text{.}\) Then
\(a\) is an element of one of these two sets. If
\(a \in f^{-1}(D_1)\text{,}\) then
\(f(a) \in D_1\text{.}\) Similarly if
\(a
\in f^{-1}(D_2)\) then
\(f(a) \in D_2\text{.}\) In either case
\(f(a) \in D_1 \cup D_2\) and so
\(a \in f^{-1} ( D_1 \cup D_2 )\text{.}\)
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Let
\(x \in C\text{.}\) We need to show that
\(x \in f^{-1}( f(C) )\text{.}\) So what is this set — by the definition it is
\(\{a \in A : f(a) \in f(C) \}\text{.}\) Since
\(x
\in C\) we have, by definition,
\(f(x) \in f(C)\text{.}\) Since
\(f(x) \in f(C)\) it follows that
\(x \in
f^{-1}(f(C))\text{.}\)
Note that the converse of this statement is false:
\(f^{-1}(f(C)) \not\subseteq C\text{.}\) This makes a good exercise. We also note that (ii) follows a similarly flavoured argument and is another good exercise for the reader.